If the purpose of a suicide-terrorist attack is not to die, but to kill and to inflict the maximum number of casualties on the target society, why do they die?
If the purpose of the suicide bomber is to end the occupation of his country, why is the suicide tactic not as old as war and territorial occupation itself?
If the purpose of the suicide bomber is to end the occupation of his country and to inflict the maximum number of casualties on the target society why are the targets so disparate and scattered, without a clear relation to the occupation?
Why are suicide bombings publicized before any proof is brought by investigation?
For me these questions underline the illogical nature of suicide bombings. I believe to find logic you have to see the suicide bomber as a fabrication of the Zionists for their own purposes:
To demonize Islam
To make Muslims look stupid, fanatical, and murderous.
To create worldwide terrorism that they can claim has nothing to do with Israel, but everything to do with Islam.
To attack those who think themselves to be allies, but are not, e.g. America, Spain, Britain.
To shift the blame for any bombing Zionists perpetrate onto the Muslims, simply by calling it a suicide bombing.
To control public opinion in favor of Israel as the most grieved victim of terrorism.
To justify apartheid in Israel.
To justify war in the Middle East with the spoils of war accruing to themselves, while the costs are borne by their "allies".
So it's not the fundamentalism, it's not the occupation, it's not suicide, it's not a guerilla tactic, it's the timeless strategy of the Jews working to advantage themselves on their journey toward dominion.